Question AC16 Software Engineering PART I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Each Question carries 2 marks. Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: Q.1 The most important feature of spiral model is (A) requirement analysis. (B) risk management. (C) quality management. (D) configuration management. Q.2 The worst type of coupling is (A) Data coupling. (B) control coupling. (C) stamp coupling. (D) content coupling. Q.3 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for (A) Software requirement specification. (B) Software design. (C) Testing. (D) Both (A) and (B) Q.4 One of the fault base testing techniques is (A) unit testing. (B) beta testing. (C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing. Q.5 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called (A) Preventative maintenance. (B) Adaptive maintenance. (C) Corrective maintenance. (D) Perfective maintenance. Q.6 All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the case of (A) Bottom up testing (B) Top-down testing (C) Sandwich testing (D) Big-Bang testing Q.7 If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation SRS is said to be (A) correct. (B) unambiguous. (C) consistent. (D) verifiable. Q.8 A fault simulation testing technique is (A) Mutation testing (B) Stress testing (C) Black box testing (D) White box testing Q.9 Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data then the cohesion is (A) Sequential (B) Communicational (C) Procedural (D) Logical Q.10 If the objects focus on the problem domain then we are concerned with (A) Object Oriented Analysis. (B) Object Oriented Design (C) Object Oriented Analysis & Design (D) None of the above Q.11 SRS is also known as specification of (A) White box testing (B) Stress testing (C) Integrated testing (D) Black box testing Q.12 The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is (A) Evolutionary Development Model (B) Waterfall Model (C) Prototyping (D) Iterative Enhancement Model Q.13 SRD stands for (A) Software requirements definition (B) Structured requirements definition (C) Software requirements diagram (D) Structured requirements diagram Q.14 A COCOMO model is (A) Common Cost Estimation Model. (B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model. (C) Complete Cost Estimation Model. (D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model. Q.15 Which of the following statements is true (A) Abstract data types are the same as classes (B) Abstract data types do not allow inheritance (C) Classes cannot inherit from the same base class (D) Object have state and behavior Q.16 The desired level of coupling is (A) No coupling (B) Control coupling (C) Common coupling (D) Data coupling Q.17 In the spiral model ?risk analysis? is performed (A) In the first loop (B) in the first and second loop (C) In every loop (D) before using spiral model Q.18 For a well understood data processing application it is best to use (A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model (C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model Q.19 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a (A) cause-effect graph (B) dependence matrix (C) Structure chart (D) SRS Q.20 The symbol represents (A) mandatory 1 cardinality (B) mandatory many cardinality (C) optional 0 or 1 cardinality (D) optional zero-many cardinality Q.21 Each time a defect gets detected and fixed the reliability of a software product (A) increases. (B) decreases. (C) remains constant. (D) cannot say anything. Q.22 Output comparators are used in (A) static testing of single module (B) dynamic testing of single module (C) static testing of single and multiple module (D) dynamic testing of single and multiple module Q.23 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is (A) object. (B) class. (C) inheritance. (D) aggregation. Q.24 The level at which the software uses scarce resources is (A) reliability (B) efficiency (C) portability (D) all of the above Q.25 If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process then the SRS is (A) verifiable (B) traceable (C) modifiable (D) complete Q.26 Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called (A) adaptive maintenance (B) corrective maintenance (C) perfective maintenance (D) preventive maintenance Q.27 All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of above Q.28 Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of (A) Acceptance testing (B) Integration testing (C) System Testing (D) Unit testing Q.29 An object encapsulates (A) Data (B) Behaviour (C) State (D) Both Data and behaviour Q.30 In function point analysis number of general system characteristics used to rate the system are (A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 20 (D) 12 Q.31 Aggregation represents (A) is_a relationship (B) part_of relationship (C) composed_of relationship (D) none of above Q.32 If P is risk probability L is loss then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as (A) RE = P/L (B) RE = P + L (C) RE = P*L (D) RE = 2* P *L Q.33 Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are: (A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 28 Q.34 ER model shows the (A) Static view. (B) Functional view. (C) Dynamic view. (D) All the above. Q.35 The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called: (A) CASE Tools (B) CAME tools (C) CAQE tools (D) CARE tools Q.36 Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called (A) Preventive Maintenance (B) Adaptive Maintenance (C) Corrective Maintenance (D) Perfective Maintenance Q.37 Requirements can be refined using (A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model (C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model Q.38 The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product size alone is (A) Basic COCOMO model (B) Intermediate COCOMO model (C) Detailed COCOMO model (D) All the three COCOMO models Q.39 Structured charts are a product of (A) requirements gathering (B) requirements analysis (C) design (D) coding Q.40 The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is a (A) bug (B) error (C) risk (D) failure Q.41 The main purpose of integration testing is to find (A) design errors (B) analysis errors (C) procedure errors (D) interface errors Q.42 Pseudocode can replace (A) flowcharts (B) structure charts (C) decision tables (D) cause-effect graphs Q.43 If a program in its functioning has not met user requirements is some way then it is (A) an error. (B) a failure. (C) a fault. (D) a defect. Q.44 The testing that focuses on the variables is called (A) black box testing (B) white box testing (C) data variable testing (D) data flow testing Q.45 CASE Tool is (A) Computer Aided Software Engineering (B) Component Aided Software Engineering (C) Constructive Aided Software Engineering (D) Computer Analysis Software Engineering Q.46 Software consists of (A) Set of instructions + operating procedures (B) Programs + documentation + operating procedures (C) Programs + hardware manuals (D) Set of programs Q.47 Which is the most important feature of spiral model? (A) Quality management (B) Risk management (C) Performance management (D) Efficiency management Q.48 Which phase is not available in software life cycle? (A) Coding (B) Testing Q.49 Which is not a step of requirement engineering? (A) Requirements elicitation (B) Requirements analysis (C) Requirements design (D) Requirements documentation Q.50 FAST stands for (A) Functional Application Specification Technique (B) Fast Application Specification Technique (C) Facilitated Application Specification Technique (D) None of the above Q.51 For a function of two variables boundary value analysis yields (A) 4n + 3 test cases (B) 4n + 1 test cases (C) n + 4 (D) None of the above Q.52 Site for Alpha Testing is (A) Software Company (B) Installation place (C) Any where (D) None of the above Q.53 Which is not a size metric? (A) LOC (B) Function count (C) Program length (D) Cyclomatic complexity Q.54 As the reliability increases failure intensity (A) decreases (B) increases (C) no effect (D) none of the above Q.55 Software deteriorates rather than wears out because (A) software suffers from exposure to hostile environments. (B) defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often. (C) multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions. (D) software spare parts become harder to order. Q.56 What are the three generic phases of software engineering? (A) Definition development support (B) What how where (C) Programming debugging maintenance (D) Analysis design testing Q.57 The spiral model of software development (A) Ends with the delivery of the software product (B) Is more chaotic than the incremental model (C) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration (D) All of the above Q.58 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? (A) Ad hoc (B) Repeatable (C) Reusable (D) Organized Q.59 Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers? (A) Process (B) Manufacturing (C) Methods (D) Tools Q.60 Which of the following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented metric? (A) LOC is easily computed. (B) LOC is a language dependent measure. (C) LOC is a language independent measure. (D) LOC can be computed before a design is completed. Q.61 Top down approach is used for (A) development. (B) identification of faults. (C) testing and validation. (D) reverse engineering. Q.62 Which of the following is not an attribute of software engineering (A) Efficiency. (B) Scalability. (C) Dependability. (D) Usability. Q.63 A key concept of quality control is that all work products (A) are delivered on time and under budget (B) have complete documentation (C) have measurable specification for process outputs (D) are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer Q.64 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is (A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001 (C) ISO 9002 (D) ISO 9003 Q.65 What types of models are created during software requirements analysis? (A) Functional and behavioral (B) Algorithmic and data structure (C) Architectural and structural (D) Usability and reliability Q.66 What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized? (A) unit integration system validation (B) system integration unit validation (C) unit integration validation system (D) none of the above Q.67 Software feasibility is based on which of the following (A) business and marketing concerns (B) scope constraints market (C) technology finance time resources (D) technical prowess of the developers Q.68 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on (A) information domain values (B) project schedule (C) software functions (D) process activities Q.69 The software metrics chosen by an organization are driven by the business or technical goals an organization wishes to accomplish. (A) True (B) False Q.70 The goal of quality assurance is to provide management with the data needed to determine which software engineers are producing the most defects. (A) True (B) False Q.71 In the context of requirements analysis partitioning results in the elaboration of data function or behavior. (A) True (B) False Q.72 Units and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested independently of one another (A) True (B) False
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